A function might not have an absolute min/max if the function is unbounded at one of the
endpoints
A function must also be finite
An interior point on the domain of a function whose derivative is zero is a **critical point
**(inflection, max, min, local/absolute)
Rolle’s Theorem if there is a horizontal line touching the graph twice then there is a
point in this interval whose derivative is zero
Can be used the prove the mean value theorem Suppose y=f(x) is continuous over a
closed interval [a,b] and differentiable on the interval’s interior (a,b). Then
there is at least one point c in (a,b) at which b−af(b)−f(a)=f′(c)
The slope of the line between a and b will be repeated or exist as the derivate at a point
c in the interval
At some point along the average change between two points the instantaneous change must
equal the average change over that interval.
Corollary from mean value theorem If f′(x)=g′(x) at each point x in an open
interval (a,b), then there exists a constant C such that f(x)=g(x)+C for
all x∈(a,b) that is, f−g is a constant function on (a,b)
The graphs of functions with identical derivatives on an interval can only differ by a
vertical shift. The constant is added to f(x) not to the domain (horizontal shift)
The interval does not have to be finite
antiderivativefunction on an interval I where F′(x)=f(x) for all x in
I if f(x) was the derivative of a function, what would that function be
If F is an antiderivative of f on an interval I, then the most general antiderivative
of f on I is F(X)+C
The function F(x)=x2 is not the only function whose derivative is 2x. The
function x2+1 has the same derivative. Any two antiderivatives differ by a
constant. The functions x2+C where C is an arbitrary constant form all the
antiderivatives of f(x)=2x If the derivate is the same they should just differ by a
constant
How do we get this corollary from the mean value theorem? ?
Finding the family of functions gives the general solution to a problem of a differential
equation dxdy=f(x)
Then we can solve for an initial value where y(x0)=y0 for some initial
condition x
∫f(x)dx the collection of antiderivates of f, or the indefiniteintegral
of f wrt x
We say that a number J is the definite integral of f over [a,b] and that
J is the limit of the riemann sums J=lim∣P∣→0∑k=1nf(ck)Δxk
J→∫abf(x)dx
Leibniz envisioned an infitied sum of function values multiplied by infinitesimal
subintervals of dx. So f(x) represents a continuous selection of function values (as
opposed to f(ck)). The symbol then for J (the definite integral that is
approached by the riemann sum) is ∫abf(x)dx
mean value theorem for definite integrals if f is continuous on [a,b], then
at some point c in [a,b], f(c)=b−a1∫abf(x)dx≤maxf
∫abf(x)dx=F(b)−F(a) If f is continuous over [a,b] and F
is any antiderivative of f over [a,b]
Proved on p.332. Mad how implication can give us these insights, that to me at least,
dont make intuitive sense.
Also have the net change theorem
what is e? Still dont fully understand but know
that its an exponential number that is proportional to its own derivative. Its a useful way to
represent exponential growth